Alhaj v. Holder (6th Cir. 7/10/09) (publication order entered 8/7/09)
DAUGHTREY, Rogers, Kethledge
Mr. and Mrs. Alhaj are Yemenis seeking asylum on account of love. Mrs. Alhaj had been forced by her family to marry a much older man, whose first wife could not bear children. Mr. Alhaj noticed that she seemed persecuted. They began an illicit affair, which was detected. Eventually, she became pregnant, and they fled (separately) to the US. They called the 1st husband and he granted a divorce; but he would kill them if they returned to Yemen.
1. IJ denied VD on grounds that he didn't have a visa to go to any country other than Yemen, and he didn't want to go there. CtApp upheld the VD denial, because IJ was within his authority to require proof that he could lawfully enter any other country (per the regulations, 8 C.F.R. § 1240.26(c)(2) (2008)). Note that 1252(a)(2)(D) restored jurisdiction over this legal argument, notwithstanding 1252(a)(2)(B)(i) (stripping jurisdiction over VD denials).
2. The CtApp found that husband (and wife) weren't being persecuted on account of a Particular Social Group (PSG), but because of the affair.
Alhaj suggests that his wife is a member of such a group – the group of young women forced to marry older men – and that his association with his wife results in his membership in the group as well. Without regard to whether such a grouping would even meet the criteria of “a particular social group” entitled to protection under the Immigration and Nationality Act, see, e.g., Castellano-Chacon v. INS, 341 F.3d 533, 546 (6th Cir. 2003) (defining “the term ‘particular social group’ as composed of individuals who share a ‘common, immutable characteristic’”), or whether Alhaj’s attempted formulation of a transitive property of persecution is valid, the fundamental basis of the petitioner’s argument in this regard is so flawed that it dooms his prospects for success on the issue.
As noted by the government, any persecution suffered by or threatened toward Alhaj is not the result of either Ekhlas’s first marriage or of the petitioner’s opposition to the practice of older Yemeni men forcing younger women to marry them. Instead, the purported violence displayed toward Alhaj by Ekhlas’s ex-husband is solely in the nature of a personal vendetta against the petitioner for carrying on an affair and conceiving a child with his then-wife.
Isn't this really about love? This woman was forcibly married to an older man, and held there by fear. These two fell in love, and face severe repercussions from that, due primarily to Yemeni society's treatment of marriage. Because she had been married to the older man, society will let him seek to punish the young couple. But that happened because Yemeni women are forced to marry, and forced to marry older men. The nexus is not as direct as it might be, but the persecution seems directly linked to that cause.
3. The CtApp denied CAT relief on nonsensical grounds. The ex-husband is a powerful man in Yemen, powerful enough to arrange for the detention of his ex-wife's father (though local govt officials secured his release within a few days). But, says the CtApp:
The potential harm that might be visited upon Alhaj upon his return to Yemen does not constitute “torture” under the Convention because it does not originate from pain or suffering either initiated by a public official or inflicted with the consent or acquiescence of such an official. Furthermore, even though Alhaj asserts that his wife’s ex-husband is a powerful man within Yemen, it is also true that when that ex-husband allegedly arranged for the detention of Ekhlas’s father, government officials intervened and released Alhaj’s father-in-law unharmed after two or three days of incarceration. Any such treatment by a nongovernmental entity, rectified by official government actors, does not constitute torture under the Convention Against Torture and, thus, does not entitle the petitioner to the relief he now seeks.
First, if Alhaj were caught and beaten/killed/imprisoned by the ex-husband, with the acquiescence of local authorities, why wouldn't that "originate" from pain inflicted with the consent or acquiescence of public officials? Second, why does the fact that the ex-wife's father was released unharmed after two days suggest that he would be similarly unharmed? Wouldn't the spurned lover be likely to be angrier at the man who seduced his wife than at the ex-wife's father? And why would such action, if "rectified" by official govt actors, not constitute torture?
Read opinion here: